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Anderl's avatar

I’m not one of those people who spread doomsday scenarios, but this essay assumes that productivity gains will be distributed to the population. I’m not sure that’s the baseline scenario. In Europe, where income redistribution is much more pronounced, it’s more likely—but in the U.S.?

Philip Trammell's avatar

Thank you, always glad to see another take on this topic.

> “Trammell is asking … whether labor’s aggregate share stays high in the limit as capital accumulates and machine-produced varieties proliferate. The focus of the current essay is different: in rich economies, what happens to sectoral expenditure and employment as AI makes commodity production cheap?”

If this is the difference between our analyses, then surely mine is the one relevant to what will happen to the labor share in the future all things considered, no? Advanced AI won’t just (a) make it cheaper to produce a fixed set of “commodity” goods (shifting us toward artisanal goods via a price effect) and (b) make us richer all around (shifting us toward artisanal goods via an income effect, due to nonhomothetic preferences over {commodities, artisanal goods}). It will also accelerate the development of new varieties, an effect that doesn’t appear in the model in the technical note.

As for how important this effect is, something that seems worth reflecting on to me is that, even though

* at any point in time, cross-sectionally, the rich spend more than the poor on artisanal (what I call “human-intrinsic”) goods;

* this seems to have been true since the Dark Ages; and

* we’re hundreds of times richer than in the Dark Ages,

we still spend a share of ~0 on human performers. This is presumably (at least mostly) because we’ve invented new non-human-intrinsic things to spend on in the meantime. So technological development (at least on the “expanding varieties” front) seems capable of eliminating the tendency toward human-intrinsic goods that would have obtained if we’d all just “gotten richer” in the sense of having larger budgets with which to buy the goods available in the past [(b)] and even the fact that the relative price of commodities fell as well [(a)]. This ability for technological development to overturn (a) and (b) is also the main lesson I take from Hubmer, though he doesn’t frame his data as being about expanding varieties.

To my mind, the discussion here sometimes uses terms like “income elasticity” in a way that equivocates between getting richer on a fixed variety-set and technological progress that includes new varieties. E.g. in response to Hubmer’s finding that technological development has decreased the labor share despite (a) and (b), you say “on the question of whether labor remains a substantial part of the economy [in the future], one can just look at what very rich people (e.g., billionaires) spend their… money on today”. I don’t think this is right, any more than one would be able to learn about how much of his budget an American in 2026 with $40k would spend on “human touch” by looking at the “human touch” share of someone with say 40x the average income in Medieval England. Likewise, Comin et al. show that our collective "enrichment" drives a lot of structural change, but especially over the long run, I disagree with concluding that it's structural change in the same, labor-share-enhancing direction that you'd expect from looking at the cross-section.

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